One God Means One Law for All Men

There is a common teaching among evangelicals that the Old Testament Law applied to (or may continue to apply to) ethnic Israel alone, not to Gentiles. This is an especially popular view among dispensationalists, but is also held by some who claim to follow New Covenant Theology (often abbreviated as NCT).

When it comes to the ceremonial laws, that is, those laws regarding sacrifices and clean versus unclean foods, etc., I certainly agree that those laws were for the church of Israel alone. This is clear from Paul's discussion of circumcision (e. g., Romans 2:25). However, it makes the false assumption that all law is ceremonial law. Really? So God had no law against murder or adultery except for Israel? If that were true, then the Gentiles could not be called sinners, because sin is defined by the Law (I John 3:4). But, more fundamentally, if the Law reflects the righteousness of God, then to claim that it did not apply to the Gentiles is to claim that they were or are outside the rule of the God of the Bible. Who could accept such an absurdity?

However, in addition to these logical arguments, there are explicit statements of Scripture to the contrary: "We know that whatever the law says it speaks to those who are under the law, so that every mouth may be stopped, and the whole world may be held accountable to God" (Romans 3:19). Paul certainly saw no limitation of God's righteousness to the nation of Israel. He held that the Law made every man in the world accountable to God. Accountable how? "There is no distinction: for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God" (Romans 3:22-23). Accountable as sinners subject to the justice of God! And what is the consequence of that justice? "The wages of sin is death" (Romans 6:23).

The next natural question to ask is, How were and are the Gentiles held accountable to God's Law when they didn't have the written word of God? It's a logical question, but one based on a faulty assumption, that no one knows God's righteousness except those who can read it. And I would certainly agree that reading God's standards is a powerful tool toward obeying them. But think about the implications of the assumption. Did Adam and the patriarchs have no knowledge about how to obey God? Of course not. The Law was written in their hearts, just as is promised in the New Covenant (Hebrews 8:10, 10:16, Jeremiah 31:33). And even illiterate Gentiles experience the Law of God as conscience (Romans 2:15). That is the basis for the stunning statement that Paul makes in Romans 1:18-20: "The wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all ungodliness and unrighteousness of men, who by their unrighteousness suppress the truth. For what can be known about God is plain to them, because God has shown it to them. For His invisible attributes, namely, His eternal power and divine nature, have been clearly perceived, ever since the creation of the world, in the things that have been made. So they are without excuse." Ignorance cannot be claimed as an excuse because God has eliminated all ignorance!

There can be only one law for all men because there is only one God for all men!